QuizLL: June 2018

A) ensure max field of view at all distances
B) ensure least amount of distortion at all distances
C) ensure the best ADD at all distances
D) ensures least field of view at all distances

Answer: A) ensures max field of view at all distances

PALs should have MORE pantoscopic tilt than SMFs do because:

Type of bridge which is best used with PALs

Answer: Adjustable nose pads

Aviator/pilot shaped frames shouldn't be used with general purpose PALs because they cut off the _ portion of the area

Answer: Nasal; reading

Shallow frames shouldn't be used with GENERAL purpose PALs because they cut off the _ portion of the reading area which contains the full power

Answer: Lower; ADD

PAL design which has the ADD power split between the front and back surfaces of the lens and are offset form each other ( to reduce distortion)

Answer: Split add PAL design

PAL design in which the clinical specifies the frame's vertex distance, pantoscopic tilt, and face form

A) split add PAL
B) prescription dependent PAL
C) tropia dependent PAL
D) position of wear PAL

Answer: D) position of wear PAL

PAL design that changes with both the ADD power and the distance rx (so it changes whether its a myope or hyperope)

A) split add PAL
B) prescription dependent PAL
C) tropia dependent PAL
D) position of wear PAL

Answer: B) Prescription dependent PAL

PAL design which has a different design for right and left lenses

Answer:

Inset build in so no lens rotation required
Asymmetric PAL design

PAL design which has the same design for both right and left lenses

Answer: Symmetric PAL design

PAL design in which lenses change with increasing ADD power

Answer:

Early presbyopes will get soft designs that gradually get harder with age
Multiple PAL design

PAL design which doesn't account for the differing visual needs of presbyopes

Answer: Single/mono PAL design

PAL design which contains modest distortion that's distributed throughout the lens

A) soft
B) hard

Answer: A) soft

PAL design which contains abundant distortion that's restricted to smaller areas of a lens

A) soft
B) hard

Answer: B) hard

The word used to describe the visual degradation patient's experience when looking into areas of the lens that contains astigmatic error/distortion

Answer: Swim

As the width and reading area and/or the ADD , the distortion _

Answer: Increases; increases

3 things which affect the amount of astigmatic error surrounding the progressive corridor and reading area of the PALs

Answer:

Width of the progressive corridor
Width of the reading area
ADD power

The consequence of the aspheric design and results in distortion surrounding the progressive corridor and the reading area

Answer: Astigmatic error

How to aspheric curves in PALs impact image jump

Answer: PALs don't have image jump

Due to hemolytic anemia, this UTI antiseptic is CONTRAINDICATED in children and pregnant women

Answer: Nitrofurantoin

Adverse effects of this UTI antiseptic is acute pneumonitis and neuropathies

Answer: Nitrofurantoin

UTI antiseptic which is used for UTI (E. Coli) infections

Answer: Nitrofurantoin

Contraindication of this UTI antiseptic is patients with hepatic insufficiency

Answer: Methenamine

T/F Formaldehyde is not that dangerous, and has been shown to be beneficial when it is in your blood.

Answer: FALSE. It is a dangerous toxin that can kill you if it is in the blood.

UTI antiseptic which decomposes at acidic pH in the urine to produce FORMALDEHYDE

Answer: Methenamine

4th gen fluoroquinolone used in the treatment of UTI and bronchitis caused by H. Influenzae

Answer:

NOT effective against pseudomonas bacteremia
Lomefloxacin

This 3rd gen fluoroquinolone is FDA approved for the treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis, sinusitis, chronic bronchitis, and community-acquired pneumonia

Answer: Levofloxacin

Examination and treatment procedures are directed toward_______and preservation of good body mechanics in posture and movement.

Stretching massage is invaluable in the corrective treatment of muscles and fascia shortened by ling standing postural faults or _______.

Pressure on nerve root, tension on structures and disruption of pain are all_______causes of pain.

When range of motion is limited because of tight muscles, treatment consists of the use of various_______and procedures that promote muscle relaxation and assists in stretching the muscles.

A grade of zero means that there is no_______of any muscle contraction that is visible or palpable.

The grade of_______means that the muscle can hold the test position against strong pressure.

Detailed grading of muscle strength is more important in relation to_______than to diagnosis.

Test movements is a movement of part in a ____ direction and through a specific arc of motion.

One of the basic rules of procedure to muscle strength testing is :_______the part proximal to the tested part.

Range of joint motion refers to the number of_______of motion present in a joint.

Objectivity is based on the examiners ability to palpate and_______the tendon or muscle response in very weak muscles.

To become proficient, one must possess a _______. and detailed knowledge of muscle function.

Manual muscle testing is the tool of choice to determine the extent of _______

In order to have a long massage career, you need to use good ___

The most important characteristic of a good massage therapist is ___ about your client and___ on the client during the massage.

You need to work the ___ layers, before you can work the ___ layers of the body.

If you want to work deeper using the same amount of pressure,use a ___ tool.

The deeper you work the__ you should work.

Deep tissue therapy is designed to return the body to a state of ease and balance by eliminating the uneven pulls on the skeleton caused by ________ muscles and constricted __.

______ developed a 10 session series of bodywork called structural integration.

A tender point that frequently develops near the attachment point of the levator scapula is often attributed to what postural characteristic?

The muscle that compromise the rotator cuff are:

What massage lubricant do I recommend in the winter and why?

What is going to be least effective tool to perform deep tissue massage on those largest and strongest muscles?

What are the strongest and largest muscles?

When stretching your client you should ____ stretch, ______ release.

Where are the strap muscles and what else are they called?

Where is the SCM and how would you massage it?

Chronically shortened muscles ___ circulation of blood and lymph.

The primary function of deep tissue therapy is to reduce the level of stress on the body by _______shortened muscles.

The general protocol for deep tissue work opens the body progressively, beginning with __contact, __ the tissues, then work ___deeper layers.

Muscles can only ____ not _______.

The primary function of muscles is to provide _____ for the body.

What should the massage therapist do after deactivating a trigger point?

Trigger points in the neck often refer pain to the _____, especially trigger points in the ______.

What is a trigger point?

The best way to examine the soleus is to disengage the gastrocnemius by flexing the clients leg _

The soleus is __ to the gastrocnemius.

Perform an elongation stroke with the ___ up the midline of the posterior leg to separate the heads of the gastrocnemius.

The __ and ______ merge at the Achilles tendon and act to prevent over flexion of the knee during walking by stabilizing the ankle.

What muscle often adheres to the IT band and is often the true cause of ITB problems?

What should the therapist focus on while working with connective tissue?

Which of the following is considered connective tissue?

When massaging the PSOAS you can check your location by having the client lift their ___ a few inches off of the table to feel the muscle contract.

This muscle passes over the pelvis like a sling and initiates flexion of the spine. Inadequate functioning can influence the position and action of the diaphragm, affecting respiration. General health and well-being of the body is therefore tied to the condition of the ________

How many muscles are involved in the breathing process?

Which muscle has its origin at the outer lip of the iliac crest, ASIS, and insertion at the iliotibial tract?

When massaging external obliques place your fingers on rib 5, near the sternum performing ______ up and down and side to side on the ribs.

The attachment for External Obliques are on the lower 8 ribs, interweaving with the ______

When using elongation strokes with the forearm to the hamstrings you should ______________?

What muscle is not part of the posterior hip and thigh?

What is one of the best massage stroke for searching for SCM trigger point activity?

What part of SCM has trigger points referring to pain to the occipital ridge and the top of the head?

How many muscles are involved in moving the femur at both of its joints?

In shiatsu the conception of vessel 22 point helps to open ______ passage and help relieve sore throat and other inflammatory conditions of the throat and chest.

What is the deepest core muscle?

Massage therapists need to be familiar with the factors that lead to soft tissue dysfunction, including postural abnormalities and movement habits that can result in misuse, abuse and ____ in the body.

What are below the gastrocnemius? ______&________

What are possible symptoms of a tight diaphragm?

What type of suppression may be found in FVD?

Minimum short height for short corridor PALs

Which type of lens makes computer usage and reading more comfortable?

Device used to measure wavefront distortion

Two categories ocular aberrations

Pts who are disturbed by image jump are good candidates for:

Pts who are concerned about cosmesis are good candidates for:

Pts with postural limitations are good candidates for:

A pt which has motion sickness of balance problems is good candidates for:

A pt which requires a wide reading area are good candidates for:

A pt with less exacting visual requirements are good candidates for:

A satisfied SMF wearer, especially those wearing wide seg like FT 35, FT45 and executives are good candidates for:

A first time MF wearer is a good candidate for:

What are three advantages of the PAL compared to the SMF?

The most important characteristic of a good massage therapist is _ about your client and_ on the client during the massage.

You need to work the _ layers, before you can work the _ layers of the body.

Deep tissue therapy is designed to return the body to a state of ease and balance by eliminating the uneven pulls on the skeleton caused by ______ muscles and constricted .

When stretching your client you should stretch, __ release.

The general protocol for deep tissue work opens the body progressively, beginning with contact, the tissues, then work ___deeper layers.

Muscles can only not ___.

Trigger points in the neck often refer pain to the _, especially trigger points in the __.

The and ____ merge at the Achilles tendon and act to prevent over flexion of the knee during walking by stabilizing the ankle.

What are below the gastrocnemius? &__